Questions & Answers!

Milk and Meat?

Question Index:

Hell:

Buy and Sell on Sabbath:

News Media Ignores:

Ambiguous Sacred Name Groups:

Information on This Organization:

Tithe:

The Name of Yahshua:

Pollution of Idols?

The Sons of Elohim?

Women Preachers?

Kosher Food?_Worshipping_Yahweh?_Wearing_Make-Up?

To The Jew First!

Selah! What Does This Mean?

The Evangels Harmony!

It Gets Personal!

Where Is Israel Today?

Sabbath's Day Journey?

Which Feast Days?

Alan Writes:

I wish some organization would expose the myth of Hell. Consider this, Sheol, a Hebrew term for grave and Hade, a Greek term for a mythical place of the dead has now been translated by English speaking translators to Hell, The meaning of which Chr--stians believe is completely made up and has no resemblance to the words it was translated from!!! Simple, but everybody believes this ridiculous and terrible translation that puts a mark on the great G-d  of the universe.

Alan the following will answer this falsehood concerning the Ch--stian teaching of Hell.

Hawke Answers:

There are four words found in the Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible that are translated as hell. (This is not true of all translations however, but of the widely used King James Version in particular.) The word hell, therefore creates much difficulty. The reason for this confusion is that the four different words have various meanings. A single English word cannot serve as an accurate translation for words having dissimilar meanings.

In the King James Version of the Bible we find that the word hell occurs  54 times. In the Old Testament the word hell is found 31 times. Each occurrence is the faithful rendering of a single Hebrew word, sheol. The definition of this word is simply a grave. In the New Testament the word hell appears 23 times. Here we find three different words used. The first is the Greek word hades. This word occurs 10 times and means "grave," similar to the Hebrew word sheol. The next word is tartaroo which is derived from tartaros or tartarus.

 This Greek word occurs only once in 2 Peter 2:4.

^{"For if Yahweh  spared not angels when they sinned, but cast them down to hell, and committed them to pits of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment;"}

    ^{Here it simply means " a place of restraint, imprisonment, or incarceration." It is the only definition that even remotely resembles the doctrine of hell as taught in nominal religion. Here the angels that fell are reserved for final punishment in the lake of fire as per Matthew 25:41. They are restrained in darkness until that day.}

  ^{The last word we want to look at is not Greek in origin but Semitic in origin--gehenna. This word actually forms a composite of two words, the first one is gay, a Hebrew word which means "gorge or valley." Hinnom is identified as a place outside Jerusalem where the aboriginal Canaanites once offered human sacrifices. Ge-Hinnom or Gay-Hinnom forms the word gehenna, which simply means "the valley of Hinnom."}

^{Let's look at the meaning of the word hell. The word hell used by many sects of nominal religion has come to represent the "underworld." The true meaning of this word, however, bears no resemblance at all to any sort of "underworld." Hell is defined as follows:}

Our modern word Hell, related to the Norse G-ddess of the Underworld
Hel, comes to us from the Old English and Old High German helan (to
conceal), which is derived from the Latin celare and the Greek kalyptein, and
is traceable back to the Indo-European root kel (to cover).  Hell, as such, has
a history which extends back before Ch--stians started to threaten to send
people there.

     Hell has also been referred to as Tartarus or Hades by the Greeks,
infernus (also inferum and inferi) in Latin, the Hebrews used Sheol, and New
Testament writers used Gehenna, thought to suggest ge-bene-hinnom from
2 Kings 23:10 (valley of the sons of Hinnom), a place where "no man might
make his son or his daughter to pass through the fire to Moloch." 

The English word for hole is derived from this Indo-European root. The German word is hohl, meaning "empty" or hohle, meaning "a cave." Other German derivations are halle, meaning "a hall," and holle, the equivalent of hell. It can be seen from this evidence that hell means nothing more that a hole in the ground. The grave (if we are buried in one) is a hole in the ground dug for the purpose of burying the dead.

Alan, I hope this answers your question.

Hawke Answers:

  Thank you for visiting our web site and taking the time to ask a question! We appreciate every individual response we have received so far. We have tried to answer the questions in article form that appears on this web site. You will find your answer on the articles page contained within the articles  "Looking For Truth?"series Parts 4 & 5. 

Thank you for writing! Yours in Messiah, Hawke

Mr. Hamilton Writes:

       I believe that the financial NEWS media ignore the information in the pages below in order to serve their ADVERTISERS rather than their readers/listeners/viewers.

Hawke Answers:

    Thank you Mr. Hamilton for this information. It only proves what Yahshua said in Mark 8:15:

^{And he charged them, saying, "Take heed, beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and the leaven of Herod." Herod represents government. And we know from experience that the government will lie to its' constituents.}

^{Also the following can apply as money/wages are deceitfully taken from the working class people in America.}

 ^{Behold, the hire of the laborers who mowed your fields, which is of you kept back by fraud, cries out: and the cries of them that reaped have entered into the ears of the Yahweh Sabaoth. James (Jacob) 5:3}

^{And in covetousness shall they with feigned words make merchandise of you: whose sentence now from of old lingers not, and their destruction slumbers not. 2 Peter 2:3}

Yes, these are very deceitful people that deal with DJIA (Dow Jones Industrial Average). They are only out for themselves and to make money so beware!

To conclude: what we have are several examples of tithes given on items other than food items. In the early days of the Bible, as today in the more remote regions of the world, economics were more a matter of barter, food being one of the more valuable commodities. As the economies of the peoples developed a more non-perishable medium of exchange took over. It is interesting to note that there was no “outreach” ministry associated with the early worship of Yahweh. Israel was to set the example that the world was to come to, not Israel going to the world. This would necessitate a worshiper who lived far off to use something other that perishable food and animals that had to walk and could die in transit.

Would Yahweh not allow a banker, factory worker, office staffer, truck driver, etc. to fully participate in his worship? They could not if they had to raise their tithes as food items. Would anyone be a farmer, dairyman, etc. if Yahweh had put a loophole in the law? There would be few if any today; after all, no tithes to Yahweh mean more money for me! Would Yahweh accept non-food tithes from Abram and the widow but not from us today? No, he is consistent.

Finally, we are still bound to the agricultural way of thinking today even though few of us actually farm for a living. We use terms such as: “outstanding in his field,” “the fruits of our labors,” “a hard row to hoe,” etc. for our jobs; and terms for money such as “lettuce,” “cabbage,” “dough,” etc. Even our own idioms tell us that money and agriculture are closely associated.

Thank you for your question, perhaps this will help others as well. It was a good review for me as well.

May Yahweh bless you in Messiah Yahshua’s Name!

the Mick

I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain the learning
of the Greeks, and understanding the elements of the Greek
language although I have so long accustomed myself to speak
our own language, that I cannot pronounce Greek with
sufficient exactness: for our nation does not encourage those
that learn the languages of many nations.

The Testimony from the Early Assembly Fathers.

Papias, bishop of Hierapolis, c. 150 C.E. said: "Matthew put down the words of the Master in the Hebrew language, and others have translated them, each as best he could." Irenaeus (120-202 C.E.) Bishop of Lions, France. "Matthew, indeed, produced his G--pel written among the Hebrews in their own dialect." Origen (c. 225 C.E.) said: "The first G--pel composed in the Hebrew language, was written by Matthew... for those who came to faith from Judaism." Eusebius, Bishop of Caesarea (c. 325 C.E.) "Matthew had first preached to the Hebrews, and when he was about to go to others also, he transmitted his G--pel in writing in his native language" (Ecclesiastical History III 24, 6).

And, also, Ephiphanius, Jerome, translator of the Scripture into Latin, the so-called called Vulgata version, say the same.

 What other scholars have written on the language of the New Testament:

When we turn to the New Testament we find that
there are reasons for suspecting a Hebrew or Aramaic
original for the G--pels of Matthew, Mark, John
and for the apocalypse.
- Hugh J. Schonfield; An Old Hebrew Text
of St. Matthew's G--pel; 1927; p. vii


The material of our Four G--pels is all Palestinian,
and the language in which it was originally written
is Aramaic, then the principle language of the land...
-C. C. Torrey; Our Translated G--pels; 1936 p. ix


The pioneer in this study of Aramaic and Greek relationships was
Charles Cutler Torrey (1863-1956),... His work however fell short
of completeness; as a pioneering effort, in the nature of the case,
some of his work has to be revised and supplemented. His main
contention of translation, however, is undeniably correct. ...

The translation into Greek from Aramaic must have been made from
a written record, including the Fourth G--pel. The language was
Eastern Aramaic, as the material itself revealed, most strikingly
through a comparison of parallel passages. ...


My own researches have led me to consider Torrey's position
valid and convincing that the G--pels as a whole were translated
from Aramaic into Greek.
- Frank Zimmerman; The Aramaic Origin
of the Four G--pels; KTAV; 1979

Thus it was that the writer turned seriously to tackle
the question of the original language of the Fourth G--pel;
and quickly convincing himself that the theory of an
original Aramaic document was no chimera, but a fact
which was capale of the fullest verification...
- Charles Fox Burney; The Aramaic Origin
of the Fourth G--pel; 1922; p. 3

...this [Old Syriac] G--pel of St. Matthew appears at least
to be built upon the orginal Aramaic text which was the work
of the Apostle himself.
- William Cureton; Remains of a Very
Ancient Recension of the Four G--pels
in Syriac; 1858; p. vi)

...the Book of Revelation was written in a Semitic language,
and that the Greek translation... is a remarkably close
rendering of the original."
- C. C. Torrey; Documents of the Primitive Church
1941; p. 160

We come to the conclusion, therefore that the Apocalypse
as a whole is a translation from Hebrew or Aramaic...
- RBY Scott; The Original Language of the Apocalypse
1928; p. 6


Luke was most certainly written in a Semitic language. as Charles Cutler Torrey states:

In regard to Lk. it remains to be said, that of all the
Four G--pels it is the one which gives by far the plainest
and most constant evidence of being a translation.
- C.C. Torrey; Our Translated G--pels p. lix

TESTIMONIES OF OTHERS (CONSIDERED AS SCHOLARS:)



Papias (150-170 C.E.)
Matthew composed the words in the Hebrew dialect, and each
translated as he was able.

Ireneus (170 C.E.)
Matthew also issued a written G--pel among the Hebrews in
their own dialect.

Origen (c. 210 C.E.)
The first <center>
is written according to Matthew, the same
that was once a tax collector, but afterwards an emissary of
Y'hshua the Messiah, who having published it for the Jewish
believers, wrote it in Hebrew.

Eusebius (c. 315 C.E.)
Matthew also, having first proclaimed the G--pel in Hebrew,
when on the point of going also to the other nations, committed
it to writing in his native tongue, and thus supplied the want of
his presence to them by his writings.

Pantaenus... penetrated as far as India, where it is reported
that he found the G--pel according to Matthew, which had been
delivered before his arrival to some who had the knowledge of
Messiah, to whom Bartholomew, one of the emissaries, as it is
said, had proclaimed, and left them the writing of Matthew in
Hebrew letters.

Epiphanius (370 C.E.)
They [the Nazarenes] have the G--pel according to Matthew
quite complete in Hebrew, for this G--pel is certainly still
preserved among them as it was first written, in Hebrew letters.


Jerome (382 C.E.)
"Matthew, who is also Levi, and from a tax collector came to be
an emissary first of all evangelists composed a G--pel of
Messiah in Judea in the Hebrew language and letters, for the
benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed, who
translated it into Greek is not sufficiently ascertained.
Furthermore, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the
library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently
collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this
volume in the Syrian city of Borea to copy it. In which is to be
remarked that, wherever the evangelist... makes use of the
testimonies of the Old Scripture, he does not follow the
authority of the seventy translators [the Greek Septuagint], but
that of the Hebrew."39

"Pantaenus found that Bartholomew, one of the twelve
emissaries, had there [India] preached the advent of our Savior
Y'hshua the Messiah according to the G--pel of Matthew, which
was written in Hebrew letters, and which, on returning to
Alexandria, he brought with him."39


Isho'dad (850 C.E.)
His [Matthew's] book was in existence in Caesarea of Palestine,
and everyone acknowledges that he wrote it with his hands in Hebrew...



Clement of Alexandria (150 - 212 C.E.)
In the work called Hypotyposes, to sum up the matter briefly
he [Clement of Alexandria] has given us abridged accounts of
all the canonical Scriptures,... the Epistle to the Hebrews he
asserts was written by Paul, to the Hebrews, in the Hebrew
tongue; but that it was carefully translated by Luke, and
published among the Greeks.
 

Eusebius (315 C.E.)
For as Paul had addressed the Hebrews in the language of his
country; some say that the evangelist Luke, others that
Clement, translated the epistle.
 

Jerome (382)
"He (Paul) being a Hebrew wrote in Hebrew, that is, his own
tongue and most fluently while things which were eloquently
written in Hebrew were more eloquently turned into Greek

Stephen I hope this will help you in deciding which language the New Testament was written in. Now! According to a multitude of scholarly sources, it was written in Hebrew/Aramaic.  Now, if this is indeed the case; The name of the Savior would of necessity be of Hebrew/Aramaic origin, correct? J-s-s is of Greek origin with connections to Zeus.

Now Stephen, I want to refer you to the Looking For Truth Series Parts 10 & 11. These two parts deal with the Saviors true name, Yahshua.

If you have anymore questions, please write us here at Truth On The Net Dot Com.  One of us will be glad to answer your questions.

^{Yours in Messiah, Hawke}

 
Hello, first I want to thank you for the help with my question on the name of Yahshua. I have 2 new questions though. First I am reading Acts and when I reached chapter 15, I noticed they are talking about circumcision and the law. It then says they decided only to require that the gentiles to abstain from the pollutions of idols, fornication, that which is strangled, and blood. What are they talking about?

My next question is in reference to my beard. I read your article on keeping or not keeping a beard. Now I would like to keep it neat, because it bothers my wife that I have it at all. Is it wrong for me to trim back without removing completely? Beard Choppers

thank you,
Stephen

Finnegan Answers:

Hello Stephen:

The 15th chapter of the book of Acts has been a point of controversy for millennia. It is no wonder due to the fact that it deals with a point of controversy at the time, and still continues in some circles, until today. It was a given that the original Messianic believers came from the then current Jewish persuasion, so what would be required of a Gentile upon entering the Messianic faith? Would the requirements be the same, more, or fewer than a Gentile converting to Judaism? In Judaism today it is still a point of controversy.
Both Peter and Paul had been dealing with this almost from the beginning. The first "Gentile" converts came in under Peter, Paul had founded assemblies composed essentially of Gentiles from Rome to Macedonia. Paul with Barnabas, and others of opposing opinions, met at Jerusalem to get a final, official decision. The major obstacle was whether a male Gentile convert had to be circumcised, as in Judaism, or not.
This controversy starts out the chapter in verses one and two. Verse five makes the situation clearer: it was the Pharisees who had converted to the Messianic faith that demanded it was "NECESSARY to circumcise them, and to charge them to KEEP THE LAW OF MOSES." We see here that the controversy was a two-parter brought about by a party of ex(?)-Pharisees: circumcision being NECESSARY, AND to keep the LAW OF MOSES. (As an aside: the Pharisees used a ploy commonly used today of spreading their dissension underground by going to the BRETHREN FIRST and only bringing it to the leadership's attention either when it suited their agenda or when it blew up in their face: verse one.)
Verse six begins the official inquiry. Verse seven starts out showing that, as is often the case, the inquiry started out with much verbiage, mostly questions.
Peter finally brings things to order with a short speech. Peter actually addresses both questions by reminding those in attendance that Yahweh knows the HEART, these Gentiles (uncircumcised remember) received the Holy Spirit, and Yahweh cleansed their HEARTS by faith. Peter then asked why these people wanted to MAKE TRIAL OF YAHWEH, in wishing to put the yoke upon the Gentile disciples, when they (the Jewish, Pharisaical disciples) could not bear themselves. Actually this was quite a condemning speech that Peter made to the Pharisees:

(1) Peter clearly refers to circumcision of the heart being greater than circumcision of the flesh: Deuteronomy 10: 16 and Deuteronomy 30: 6 (see also Romans 2: 29).

(2) The Torah commands that we do not make trial of Yahweh. Deuteronomy 6: 16.
(3) Yahshua quoted this commandment: Matthew 4: 7 and Luke 4: 12.

(4) The "Law of Moses" here must refer to the Oral Law. The Written Law is never to be annulled. Psalm 119: 160, Matthew 5: 17-20.

Paul and Barnabas then have their say, telling of all they had seen and done in their ministry.
In verse thirteen Jacob gives his decision; quoting Amos 9: 11 - 12 for his scriptural base.

The requirements for a Gentile convert were now made quite simple:

(1) Abstain from the pollutions of idols.

(2) Abstain from fornication.

(3) Abstain from that which is strangled.

(4) Abstain from blood.

(5) Study the word of Yahweh. (Moses being preached and read in the synagogues every Sabbath.) So you will learn what else is required.

The official letter from the Jerusalem conference was extremely sharp toward the Pharisees, accusing them of subversion, and of acting without the official knowledge or sanction of the leadership. The first four requirements are then laid out in a different order; the fifth being assumed and referred to in verse 35 with Paul and Barnabas preaching the word of Yahweh (which could only have been the Tanak ("Old Testament") at that time, the "New Testament" not having been written yet).

In fuller detail the requirements are:

(1) Abstain from the pollutions of idols. In other words avoid contact with the religions of the world in such a way that you could become contaminated with them. This would include participating in any way with their holidays or observances. Deuteronomy 12:30-32.

(2) Abstain from fornication. This would mean to not indulge in either physical nor spiritual fornication. Sex was and is rampant in pagan society, even a part of worship. It was so prevalent that those engaged in any pagan religion was sometimes referred to as a "harlot" in the Bible (such as Rahab). Applying it today: we are espoused (engaged) to the coming Messiah to be his bride; if we participate in the practices of the false religions of today we have betrayed our future husband making us guilty of spiritual adultery and spiritual fornication.

(3) Abstaining from that which is strangled. This would be a direct reference to the dietary laws in Leviticus 11 & Deuteronomy 14. An Israelite was prohibited from eating anything that was strangled; much of the blood would be left in the meat. Eating blood is a major offence.

(4) Abstaining from blood. There are several aspects of this admonition.

(A) Abstaining from eating blood; a broadening of the point above.

(B) Not to be guilty of murder, a violation of the sixth
commandment.

(C) To avoid sacrificing animals for religious purposes. No where is it shown that the Messiah himself ever sacrificed an animal (he was perfect and therefore no blood sacrifice was needed by him); and no where is it shown that animal sacrifice was indulged in by the Apostolic Assemblies. If one sacrifices animals for a blood offering, one is denying the power of the blood offering that Yahshua made for us in shedding his own blood.

(D) Circumcision. It was and is taught by Rabbinic/Pharisaical tradition that in order to be a proper Jew one must shed at least one drop of his blood in ritual circumcision in order to atone for one's own sin. This was a battle that Paul had to fight throughout his ministry, note especially the book of Galatians. This tradition of demanding that an eight day old male child to atone for his own sins (what sins could an eight day old child have?) is a total denial of the necessity of Yahshua's sacrifice. It also leaves unanswered the status of females and of male children who may die before their eighth day. According to www.jewishencyclopedia.com, circumcision was considered to be an act of national consecration and PURIFICATION that could not be done away with. Circumcision is fine; it is the demand of ritual shedding of blood that is the problem. Today it is the circumcision of the heart that counts, not of ritual circumcision of the flesh.

(5) Study the word of Yahweh. As we see, at that time it was the "Old Testament" that was to be studied. It was the Written Law along with the Wisdom Literature, and Prophets that were to be studied. The Oral Law was to be rejected as the yoke that could be not be borne even by the most observant of the lawyers. The Written Law was, and is, possible to keep for Yahweh commanded his people to keep it in Deuteronomy 10: 12-13 "And now, Israel, what does Yahweh your Elohim require of you, but to fear Yahweh your Elohim, to walk in all his ways, and to love him, and to serve Yahweh your Elohim with all your heart and with all your soul, to keep the commandments of Yahweh, and his statutes, which I command you this day for your good?"

What we have therefore is that one is to study, understand and keep the written word of Yahweh including all the written laws, statutes and judgments; apply them both physically and spiritually; and to do nothing that would deny the sacrifice that Yahshua the Messiah made for us in shedding his blood for our sins. The individual examples are not meant to be exhaustive, they are to be indicators similar to the listing of birds in the dietary laws and Yahshua's discourse in Mark 10: 17-22 noting verse 19.



Now as to the beard question. As Doc shows in the "Beard Choppers" article it is not permitted to trim, cut, or shorten the beard as a normal grooming practice. Perhaps a couple of extra references will help:

"Western Asiatics have always cherished the beard as the badge of the dignity of manhood, and attached to it the importance of a feature, e.g., the eye or nose." "The enemies of the Egyptians,..., are represented nearly always bearded." "The removal of the beard was a part of the ceremonial treatment proper to a leper. Size and fulness of beard are said to be regarded, at the present day, as a mark of respectability and trustworthiness." The custom was and is ... regard any insult to it as the last outrage which enmity can inflict. (1 Samuel 10:4)" article "Hair" Unger's Bible Dictionary, Moody Press

"There is no question but that the average male Jew, in the course of several thousand years, steadfastly observed the Biblical injunction: "Ye shall not round the corners of your heads, neither shalt thou mar the corners of thy beard." (Leviticus 19:27) Accordingly, he wore his beard full blown, without interfering in any way with its natural contours. Said the Talmudic Sages: "The adornment of a man's face s his beard."" "While the folk-Jews, at all times, clung loyally to their revered and untrimmed patriarchal beards, there were upper-class assimilationists who broke readily with religious law and tradition in this respect, as in many others, in their eagerness to conform, chameleon-like, to the fashion of the Gentile world." In Slavic lands, until the turn of the twentieth century, practically all Jews wore beards. They wore them full and untrimmed, as their forefathers had done in ancient Israel."" But ever since the Nazi slaughter ..., thousands of Jewish youths, ... embrace an Ultra-Orthodoxy in which wearing beards, natural and untrimmed, is again a matter of no trifling consideration." Article "Beards" The Book of Jewish Knowledge, Crown Publishers, Inc. New York.

There is one well known non-Jewish group that adheres to this injunction today: the Amish. With the exception of shaving the mustache the typical Amish man's beard looks much the same as an Orthodox Jew's. The problem really is one of culture and fashion. It is a culture shock to begin to live in accord with Yahweh's written law, to us and to those around us. In some areas a full beard is becoming fashionable once again.

So, how to ease the transition for others, in this case your wife. There are some things that may help both of you:

(1) Let it grow. Unlike a shortened beard, a full beard is naturally softer. There are no sharp ends, and of course no stubble. Even a long but trimmed beard will have sharp ends to it as the hair will be cut perpendicular to the shaft. Hair that has been allowed to grow until it replaces itself tends to have tapered ends to the shaft.

(2) Keep it clean. A beard is hair, and like the hair on the top of your head it will be nicer if kept clean. Happily when you wash your hair your beard will also be washed automatically.

(3) Use conditioners. Personally, my hair and beard become dry and fly-away when I wash with too harsh of detergents or shampoos. The best thing I have found is to find a good hair conditioner and use as instructed. Also something as simple as a little olive oil works as a good hair and beard dressing (as they did in "dressing" their beards in the Bible).

(4) Comb or brush. Combing or brushing on a regular daily basis is preferred, this will help keep it tangle free. This will also help remove loose hairs and naturally contour the beard.

(5) Time. Give those around you time to adjust to the new you. A little patience can go a long way and perhaps they will come around to accepting (even liking) your new look.
Give Yahweh a chance; a beard is a witness to those around you. In time some may even ask about it, giving an opportunity to witness.

Steven; I hope this helps to answer your questions. The transition from worldly religion to the True Faith is sometimes a rocky one. Be assured that you are not alone in your quest. May our heavenly Father Yahweh bless you for your diligence.

Yours in Yahshua the Messiah,

Finnegan
 

Finnegan AKA The Mick

All emphases are the author's

All Scripture quotes from S.S.B.
Also used:
The Book of Jewish Knowledge, Crown Publishers, Inc. New York

Unger's Bible Dictionary, Moody Press

www.jewishencyclopedia.com

Commentary on Galatians,
Assemblies of Yahweh,
P.O. Box C
Bethel, PA 19507

Hi!

I am investigating the messianic faith for 3 years and at this point I am busy with evaluation of all the info. I would like to know your view of "the sons of Elohim" of Gen 6. It is not a big issue but an interesting one. I enjoy all different opinions and at the end I evaluate to find the true one.

Shalom
Willem

Hawke Answers:

     Who are the "sons of Elohim in Genesis 6?

 Several scriptures come to mind in regards to your question. 

 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the ground, and daughters were born unto them,
 that the sons of Elohim saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all that they chose. Genesis 6:1-2

 For as many as are led by the Spirit of Yahweh, these are sons of Elohim.
 For you did not receive a spirit of slavery again to fear, but you received a Spirit of adoption by which we cry, Abba! Father!
 The Spirit itself witnesses with our spirit that we are children of Yahweh.
 And if children, also heirs; truly heirs of Yahweh, and joint-heirs of Messiah, if indeed we suffer together, that we may also be glorified together.
 For I calculate that the sufferings of the present time are not worthy to compare to the coming glory to be revealed in us.
 For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly awaits the revelation of the sons of Elohim. Romans 8:14-19

 And answering, He said to them, The One sowing the good seed is the Son of Man.
 And the field is the world; and the good seed, these are the sons of the kingdom; but the darnel are the sons of the evil one. Matthew 13:37-38

"And it shall be, in the place where it was said to them, You are not My people, there they will be called, "Sons of the Living Elohim." (LXX-Hosea. 2:1; MT-Hosea. 2:23)  Romans 9:26

 You are all sons of light and sons of day; we are not of night, nor of darkness. 1 Thessalonians 5:5

 For you are all sons of Elohim through faith in Messiah Yahshua. Galatians 3:26

The sons of Elohim are the ones obeying the laws of Yahweh.  The sons of Elohim in Genesis 6:2 fell from law keeping.  They began a pattern of disobedience, like the sons of Cain.  Before long they were also among the law breakers in Noah's time.  This can be clearly seen with the flood destroying all but Noah and his family.  The sons of Elohim fell from grace.  They began to co-habit with the lawless ones, the Cain lineage.  They never mated with angels as some believe.  Yahshua said in Matthew  22:29-30

 And answering, "Yahshua said to them, You err, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of Yahweh.
 For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but they are as the angels of Elohim in Heaven."

(This follows a discourse concerning whose wife would the widow become in the kingdom, as she was married to several brothers while she lived in the flesh.)

So, the sons of Elohim are supposed to be the righteous lineage from Seth.  They fell in Noah's time and became as the seed of Cain.  The righteous lineage continued through Noah and then Shem and ultimately to Yahshua the Messiah.  We who are totally obedient to Father Yahweh's covenant, will be recognized as "Sons of Elohim", if we are found faithful.

To The Jew First!

 But glory, honor, and peace, to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
 For there is no respect of persons with Yahweh.   Romans 2:10-11

Shalom to seekers of truth and purveyors of good will!   We are receiving a lot of good questions from Messianic Jews.  They are asking very good questions in their quest for truth and salvation. 

The first question was concerning the name of Messiah (Moshiach/Mashiach) Yahshua.  The reader Davita wants to know why we use the name Yahshua for the Messiah and not Yeshua.  When this question was first posed to us a very long time ago, (but not by Davita) we thought it might be a contraction of two names, the first being the Greek name J-sus, and the second Yahshua.  The Je from the Greek name merged with the Shua of Messiah's true name, thus rendering the hybrid form Yeshua!  The letter J never appears in the Hebrew language.  Scholars have known this for centuries!  

The individual Davita referenced in this question, was Dr. Daniel Botkin of whom we have quoted in the article Sabbath Breakers Part 1.  (Dr. Botkin uses the name Yeshua for Messiah!)  At first  I opted for the simple answer, but, then realized, that nothing is ever simple, is it?  Dr. Botkin is recognized as a Hebrew Scholar in some quarters.  Supposedly fluent in Hebrew and the author of "Fluent Biblical Hebrew", however;  I may take issue with this evaluation and assessment.  After reading his article "The Messiah's Hebrew Name: "Yeshua" or "Yahshua"?  I reached the conclusion that he was missing some key points in his dissertation, that being the use of the Hebrew letter mechanics.  I believe he has overlooked a very important point in his Hebrew letter pronunciation, the use of the Hebrew letter Wau/Waw. 

"And she shall bring forth a son; and you shall call his name Yahshua; for it is he that shall save his people from their sins."  Matthew 1:21

Posted on this website is an article from the "Looking For Truth" series part 10.  In this article, the mechanics of the Hebrew language are explained.  The use of various letters that comprise the Heavenly Father's name and the Messiah's name are explained in this series. 

The difference being between Dr. Botkin's analogy and ours, lies in the transliteration/translation of the wau/waw letter.  This letter is considered one of the matris lectiones or vowel letters.

The Hebrew is read from right to left. The vowels are usually directly underneath or above each letter. However, you must also know about the matres lectionis which means vowel letters. These letters when used in the Hebrew text do not need vowels underneath them to be pronounced. You also need to be aware of another Hebrew grammatical necessity and that is the use of a diphthong when two vowel letters appear together within a word. 

This is where many quasi Hebrew Scholars become untracked.  The use of the V for the W is not from the Hebrew translation.  Therefore YHVH is erroneous! If you were to use the vav instead of the wau you would have something like this: Yah/b or v/shua! for Yahshua, or YHVH, Yahveh for Yahweh!

יהושׁע  יהושׁוּע

Reading from right to left you encounter the first letter, yothe.  This is translated/transliterated or brought across as the English letter Y.

The next letter is the He letter.  This is brought across as the English letter H.

The next letter is the wau.  And why it CANNOT be vav, is found in the translation/transliteration.  Used in this configuration it becomes a diphthong.  Now let me explain the use of a diphthong in the Hebrew language.

You also need to be aware of another Hebrew grammatical necessity and that is the use of a diphthong when two vowel letters appear together within a word.
DEFINITION:
diph·thong (dĭf'thông', -thŏng', dĭp'-)
n.
A complex speech sound or glide that begins with one vowel and gradually changes to another vowel within the same syllable, as (oi) in boil or (ī) in fine.
[Middle English diptonge, from Old French diptongue, from Late Latin diphthongus, from Greek diphthongos : di-, two; see di–1 + phthongos, sound.]

Diphthong
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.
In phonetics, a diphthong is a vowel combination usually involving a quick but smooth movement from one vowel to another, often interpreted by listeners as a single vowel sound or phoneme. While "pure" vowels, or monophthongs, are said to have one target tongue position, diphthongs have a moving tongue. Pure vowels are represented in phonetic script by one symbol: English "seem" as [si:m], for example. Diphthongs are represented by two symbols, for example English "same" as [seim], where the two vowel symbols are intended to represent approximately the beginning and ending tongue positions.

Diphthongs in English:
[au] as in house
[ai] as in kite
[ei] as in same
[@u] as in hope
[oi] as in join.

The next letter in the Savior's Name is the Hebrew letter shin (pronounced sheen).  The  ש  is brought across as the letter S with an Sh sound.  The final letter used is the ayin.  This letter comes across with the ah sound in this application. The ayin is one of the laryngeals in the Hebrew language. So! Now you have the name Yahshua in the correct transliterated form.

Above you note two forms of the Hebrew name Yahshua (Joshua in the KJV).  The one on the extreme left has a letter known as a sureg (one of the matris lectionis now being used as the vowel letter U). 

Notice the Waw/Wau the ō used in Yō'ēl or the ū used in Bārūkh.  This vowel letter becomes an O or a U according to text.  The writers and readers of the various Hebrew vowel and letter forms, were aware of this and pronounced each accordingly. 

The Hebrew alphabet consists of the following letters. Some letters have a different form used at the ends of words: these are shown in the table below the normal form.

Why can't it be Yeshua?  Because there is no indication of who Salvation is referencing to.  "He will save" (His people).  Who will save His people?  This of course is indicating Yahweh will save.  Yah the short or poetic form of the Heavenly Father's Name coupled with Shua, meaning salvation, this equals He=Yahweh,  will save=Shua, His people. Connected we see Yahshua, meaning Yahweh is Salvation.  There is no connection with Yeshua at all! Ye=?  shua=salvation What saves with this connotation?  Absolutely nothing!!!

 (And don't tell me you can use just the yothe preceding the shua rendering it  ישׁוּע ) Y'shua. 

This  amounts to the Jewish prohibition of not using the yothe and he together, (even numerically) to equal 15 because of the prohibition against using the Sacred Name in any form!

 The  יה YAH added to   שׁע or שׁוּע SHUA coupled by the diphthong ו

יה ו שׁע

יהושׁע

EQUALS=YAHSHUA

The name Yahshua comes to us from the OT.  Observe the following:

 These are the names of the men that Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Hoshea the son of Nun Yahshua.  Numbers 13:16

H1954
הושׁע
hôshêa‛
ho-shay'-ah
From H3467; deliverer; Hoshea, the name of five Israelites: - Hosea, Hoshea, Oshea.
 

H3467
ישׁע
yâsha‛
yaw-shah'
A primitive root; properly to be open, wide or free, that is, (by implication) to be safe; causatively to free or succor: - X at all, avenging, defend, deliver (-er), help, preserve, rescue, be safe, bring (having) salvation, save (-iour), get victory.

In the correct grammitical translation/transliteration this is defined as follows:  The yothe  י  from Yahweh's Name was attached to Hoshea's name rendering it YAHSHUA.  Now, Yahshua the General led the children of Israel into the promised land, and, Yahshua the Messiah will do exactly the same!  The parallels must match exactly.  This proves to be very prophetic! 

"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one yothe or one tittle shall in no wise pass away from the law, till all things be accomplished."  

Matthew 5:18

I do not want to neglect the V sound in the Hebrew.  This comes from the Bêth letter usually translated as B.  (The V sound arrives from the softened form (undageshed form) of the letter B= beth.)  However, this also is subject to text, as sometimes this becomes a B with the insertion of a dagesh punctuation mark in the bosum of the beth letter.  This give the letter a hard sound or B.   However, some many argue, this is only a question of semantics.  Not where the Sacred Names are concerned!

Dagesh
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.


The dagesh (דגש) is a diacritic used in the Hebrew alphabet. It is part of the system of niqqud (vowel points), and was added to Hebrew orthography at the same time. An identical point with a different phonetic function (within the same system) is called Mapiq.

The dagesh is a dot which is drawn inside a Hebrew letter to modify its sound.

It is possible to add Dagesh Hazzak to almost any letter. It makes up for a missing letter.

The following letters cannot have a dagesh: aleph א, he ה, chet ח, ayin ע, resh ר.

Dagesh Kal is for the letters bet ב, kaf כ & ך, pe פ & ף gimel ג, dalet ד, tav ת.
The effect of the dagesh on the above letters is to turn a fricative sound into its equivalent plosive:

The letter bet sounds like v without and b with dagesh.
The letter kaf sounds like kh without and k with dagesh.
The letter pe sounds like f without and p with dagesh.

This is only one question from one person.  I want to answer them all, but, one at a time.   I will answer more of Davita's intelligent questions ASAP.  Thanks!

SELAH! What Does This Mean?

Dear Mr. Hawke:   What does the word Selah mean in the Bible. Does this word mean rock or "The Rock"?   In Messiah, Aaron

 (Another Messianic Jew)  Good!

Great questions being asked at Truth on The Net Dot Com.  This is two in a row from Messianic Jews seeking Salvation.   We are more than glad to help, if possible! 

SELAH

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance

H5542
סלה
selâh
seh'-law
From H5541; suspension (of music), that is, pause: - Selah.
 

Brown, Driver, Briggs

H5542
סלה
selâh
BDB Definition:
1) to lift up, exalt
1a) Selah
1a1) a technical musical term probably showing accentuation, pause, interruption
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by BDB/Strong’s Number: from H5541
Same Word by TWOT Number: 1506a

Selah
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.

Selah ( Hebrew: סלה) meaning "pause, reflection", within the context of a prayer or psalms, is similar in purpose to Amen in that it stresses the importance of the preceding passage.

In this way, Selah is thought to infer that one should pause and reflect on what has been said. Alternatively, Selah may be a musical notation (thus explaining its use throughout Psalms) or may mean "forever", as it does in some places in the liturgy (notably the penultimate blessing of the Amidah).

This word used in the Psalms and Habakkuk 3 should not be confused with the word used in 2 Kings 14:7

 He slew of Edom in the Valley of Salt ten thousand, and took Sela by war, and called the name of it Joktheel, unto this day.  2Kings 14:7

This word Sela used here is:

H5554
סלע
sela‛
seh'-lah
The same as H5553; Sela, the rock city of Idumaea: - rock, Sela (-h).
 

H5553
סלע
sela‛
seh'-lah
From an unused root meaning to be lofty; a craggy rock, literally or figuratively (a fortress): - (ragged) rock, stone (-ny), strong hold.
 

Aaron:  Your questions lead me to believe that someone is forcing an interpretation/meaning, by comparing or interconnecting the two words collectively to mean the same thing.  
(I didn't include the question in its entirety, somewhat lengthy.  Reduced for the sake of brevity!)

From The Lion of Zion Website we obtained the following. 

Frequently Asked Questions
Selah
Question:

I know that the word "Selah" is used often in the Bible (especially in Psalms). You also sang a song titled "Selah" on your album, "Reggae Worship--The First Fruits of Christafari." What does this word mean?

Answer:

Great Question! There seems to be a lot of confusion regarding the definition of the word Selah. Although Chr--tafari pronounces it "see-law," the patois and reggae way, the correct original Hebrew pronunciation is "Seh-law." The literal Hebrew definition is: suspension (of music), i.e. a pause.

Selah essentially means a lyrical pause that allows for an instrumental interlude. It is a time to meditate and reflect on the lyrics of the Psalmist during the song. This gives the hearers of the Psalm an opportunity to digest what has just been said before the lyricist continues.

©Copyright 2005 Lion of Zion Entertainment

You have the answer to your questions concerning the words/terms Selah.  The Hebrew word definition in Psalms is used as a musical term, meaning to pause and reflect on what you have just heard.  (Music has meaning!)   This is a different word than was used in 2 Kings 14:7 where Sela  means; rock or lofty, i.e. rocky city, or a city set high in the rocks.

 "Eloah comes from Teman, and the Holy One from Mount Paran." "Selah." (pause, reflect on this, now read on!) "His majesty covers the heavens, and His praise fills the earth."  Habukkuk 3:3

 Same word as in Psalms, but here, Almighty Yahweh wants the reader to pause and reflect on what they have just read!   (Emphasis Mine:)

The Evangels Harmony!

Dear Doc,

I have a question you may be able to help me with. The three "synoptic"
gospels speak of the Messiah having the Passover meal with his
disciples. Then follows his arrest and crucifixion [impalement]on the day of
preparation. This is not correct as the Passover meal is what begins the
Feast and what follows is a High Sabbath. The Day of Preparation
precedes the Passover meal. The Book of John corrects this, however what
does this say about the divine inspiration of these three texts? The
book of Matthew states that the Messiah rode into the holy city with a
donkey and her colt while the book of Mark only mentions the colt. John
states that the Messiah attends a wedding feast and turns water into
wine while the three synoptic places the 40 days and nights temptation
in that time frame. While neither mentions the other account. Do you
have any suggestions as to why this is?
Thanks for your time.
Ysha
 

Dear Ysha,    First I want to thank you very much for your visit to our website, and for writing in.  I would also like to mention, that our website was not intended to be a forum for teaching.  It was intended to assist those searching for truth on how to avoid organizations that are not totally faithful to the sacred texts, and are only “wolves in sheep's clothing”.

             Having said this, I would like to offer some thoughts on your question.  Most of the difficulties I saw revolved around a seeming inaccuracy of the Passover event recorded by these writers.  Although there are many who have written critically on the subject of the harmony of the Synoptic Evangels, few of these authors would disagree with the holy inspiration of these accounts.

One of the considerations that you must bear in mind as you engage in Bible criticism such as this (often referred to as form criticism), is the purpose or intent of the writing.  For example, Luke's intent in writing differs from that of Mark's. Mark's writing has been known to point out Yahshua's Messiahship, whereas Luke's writing sets forth a precise accounting of events. (Luke 1:3)  In addition you may also realize that Matthew would also have had a different prose, as his trade required accurate record keeping.  This would explain the addition of the ass mentioned with the foal or colt.  The question then becomes:  Do these different writers teach a different doctrine and are they in conflict with one another, or do they agree in substance and meaning regardless of the use of pronouns rather than using proper nouns for example?  My position is this!  Through the use of common sense and Biblical investigation, the seeming inaccuracies are resolved.

          Some of your confusion comes from a misunderstanding of the Passover observance described in the evangels.  This will be by no means a comprehensive look at Passover or the Feast of Unleavened Bread as I will be giving reference to materials already published for this.  Let’s begin with a better understanding of the Passover and following Feast of Unleavened Bread. We find the command mentioned in the law in Lev. 23:5-8.  As you read this, you notice the Passover is a separate and distinct day from the next 7 days of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Also check Numbers 9:9 and Deut. 16:1-8.  In addition you may want to request an article called How to Keep Yahweh’s Holy Days from the Assemblies of Yahweh.  I found it to be very well written and a good addition to your Holy Day research materials.  www.assembliesofyahweh.com  Request this  article in an email to them.

The Passover event required the sacrifice be offered on the 14^th day of the first month “at even” or the going in of the sun.  This is corroborated in the narrative of Exodus 12. Israel was commanded to kill the lamb (Vs 6) on the 14^th at even (sundown) and they were restricted from going outside till morning.

It is important to understand the days mentioned here are reckoned from evening to evening.  In other words, each Biblical day begins with sundown as the sun dips below the horizon (Hebrew term Bo).  Please notice the usage throughout Genesis chapter one.

The following morning these Israelites gathered their belongings and prepared to leave Egypt (“the preparation day” Vs 32-36).  That following evening was “a night to be much observed” in celebration for their release from their captors.  This then becomes the 15^th day of the 1^st Scriptural month and marks the beginning of the first high day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread.  Here is where the confusion comes in.  The entire event had come to be known as “the Passover” which included both events!  An excellent resource for additional information besides our textbook (the Bible) is the correspondence course offered by the Assemblies of Yahweh as well as the article How to Keep Yahweh's Holy Days. My copy came free with no obligations. (You can find their link on this site) www.assembliesofyahweh.com

The timing for the impalement of our Savior is revealed to be on a Wednesday or Passover day with identical timing as with the Passover observed in Egypt.  Mark 15:42 also shows, this was the preparation day before the Sabbath when Joseph of Arimathea went in to request the body of Yahshua.  John 19:14 records it as the preparation for the Passover as well.  However, this is not the preparation for the weekly Sabbath but rather the Sabbath (High Day) commanded for the 15^th or first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Remember the entire observance was often referred to as the Passover.

          When you consider the sign of Yahshua's Messiahship that he would be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth (Matt 12:40), then John 20:1-20 makes perfect sense.  He was resurrected at the conclusion of the weekly Sabbath as the sun set on what is commonly called Saturday evening.  Undoubtedly, this is the reason that Miriam mistook Yahshua for the gardener who would be cutting the wave sheaf offered at this time (he becoming the high priest of the Melckizedek priesthood).  The first day of the week begins when the sun drops below the horizon at the conclusion of the seventh day Sabbath.  Therefore with a Wednesday impalement and following burial, Yahshua would have been resurrected at the conclusion of the weekly Sabbath as the first day began.  Now when you study the Synoptics in light of the Torah, you begin to see a “fleshing out” of events presented by the different authors. Their distinctive perspectives now offer a “harmony” to the text.

          As far as your seeming conflict of the events dealing with Yahshua's temptation in the wilderness and then the first miracle of his ministry, I can only say that you are the first I have known to arrive at that conclusion.  I can suggest a book to review that should help clear up that time line. The book is NIV/NASB Harmony of the Gospels by Robert L. Thomas and Stanley N. Gundry. Please also consider examining Mark 1:10-13.  You see Yahshua immediately after baptism, sent into the wilderness where he is tempted. of the devil.  It is only after  his temptations are complete when he begins his ministry, and then the miracle of turning the water into wine takes place.

So it is with so many of the “discrepancies” that seem to be found in the texts. With a thorough examination of the texts and harmonizing the Scriptures from Genesis to Revelation, we can consistently arrive at a clearer understanding of the Word.  The Bible is a miracle book as well as a book of miracles.  The best we can do is always remember to allow the Bible to correct us rather than seek to correct it.

I hope that this brief explanation will be helpful and that you take advantage of the resources I have mentioned. Then I know that you will be blessed in your pursuit of Bible truth.

May Yahweh Bless You!

Doc

IT GETS PERSONAL!

 I believe the following email will be self-explanatory.  The scriptures teach and warn against this type of attitude.  If Jacqueline began inquiring into the truth of Yahweh's word, and became exposed to these types of people, she should of necessity question such behavior.  Her letter brought several Scriptures to mind.  First read her email and then read the response.

To: hawke@truthonthenet.com

Subject: Why are they so nasty?! Is it a sin to be loving and nice????!!???
Date: Sat, 26 Aug 2006

My name is Jacqueline, I am a born again Chr--tian. Please don't hurt me or be angry with me, but I have an honest question:

I have friends who used to be Chr--tians (G-d, J-s-s), who are now Messianic Jews (Yahweh, Yeshua). As much as I am looking for the Truth, I started to avoid them because of the fruits they now bear.

The core of the Scripture is Love, towards each other and our Messiah. But these people are now far less friendly, more judgmental and scornful, puffed up and proud, basically they have become intellectual snobs, contradicting what the Fruit of the Spirit would have us bear in Galatians 5:22.

Why have they become like this? Does everyone change like this when they get the Truth? Is it the Truth really?! They know a lot, but their witness is poor, I do not want to become like them!!

Because of this I think that someone is lying, but I am not sure who! It is discouraging, I just want to live a simple life according to Romans 13:10, to pick out a verse in particular. How are people won to the faith with this kind of behavior? Are they telling the Truth badly? Are they causing confusion?

Jacqueline, I do not know you personally, but I will respond as if I do!  You are right to believe that there should be loving nice people living the truth of Yahweh's Word.  Sometimes people become puffed up, but should they?

 "Love suffers long, and is kind; love envies not; love vaunts not itself, is not puffed up,
 doth not behave itself unseemly, seeks not its own, is not provoked, takes not account of evil;
rejoices not in unrighteousness, but rejoices with the truth;"  1 Corinthians 13:4-6

 "In that hour came the disciples to Yahshua, saying, Who then is greatest in the kingdom of heaven?
 And he called to him a little child, and set him in the middle of them,
 and said, Verily I say to you, Except you turn, and become as little children, you shall in no wise enter into the kingdom of heaven.
 Whosoever therefore shall humble himself as this little child, the same is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven.
 And whoso shall receive one such little child in my name receives me:
 But whoso shall cause one of these little ones that believe on me to stumble, it is profitable for him that a great millstone should be hanged about his neck, and that he should be sunk in the depth of the sea.
Woe unto the world because of occasions of stumbling! for it must needs be that the occasions come; but woe to that man through whom the occasion cometh!"   Matthew 18:1-7

Jacqueline; I would view you with these passages among others in mind.  No!  If someone begins to believe the real truth of Yahweh's Word, and then becomes puffed up and arrogant, these people are not practicing the truth taught by the Word of Yahweh!  We have found the same problem among proselytes who have changed/converted (?) from Chr--tianity to Judaism or Messianic worship.  They become condescending and arrogant with their new found truths!  Knowledge can puff up the weak-minded individuals.

 "Beloved, let us love one another: for love is of Yahweh; and every one that loves is begotten of Yahweh, and knows Yahweh.
 He that loves not knows not Yahweh; for Yahweh is love.
 Herein was the love of Yahweh manifested in us, that Yahweh has sent his only begotten Son into the world that we might live through him.
 Herein is love, not that we loved Yahweh, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
 Beloved, if Yahweh so loved us, we also ought to love one another."  1 John 4:7-11

Jacqueline; here is the dividing passage.  I believe these people are not really following this vital truth.  The real true worshippers/believers, are always humble, just like Yahshua!  Jacqueline; you do not want to be involved with these people unless they repent and change their attitude.

WHERE IS ISRAEL TODAY?

Anthony Writes:

Dear Mr. Hawke,

I have been surfing your site and I will admit that you are
striving to promote the well being of life in general. Your site
provides a wealth of up to date information and it is good,
because someone has to do it. So I want to applaud you for your
efforts as I continue to increase my knowledge of the world scene
from all angles. I search for truth point blank and not half
measured self purported ideas as so many sites are doing. There
is this thing of the deeply embedded ego that too many have not
come to recognize yet, which cause them to err, hurting many with
their misinformed theology.

I take the time to write to you because I see the value and I
chose to believe genius in your putting out your information. So
I hope my question will be met with courtesy and genius with
which you speak. So here it goes.

I have researched much on the Israel identify phenomenon. While
it is practically impossible to narrow Israel to a one particular
group of individuals today, i.e. , thru archeological evidence, I
will say this. The so called "Jews" occupying the land of Israel
today, considering all the amount of information I have gathered to
date, are almost conclusive not true Israel but impostors.
Please bear with me, I am only saying this after much study into
the subject and am not in anyway attacking anyone, for Yah is the
judge. I am just looking at the historical records and where it
leads this people to. Having said this, how have you concluded
that these people are who they claim to be? Explain to me where
and how I am incorrect and your proof of your understanding.
Shalom
Anthony

Hawke Answers:

Dear Anthony:

  That you for the good compliments and review.  But!  We always praise the Living Elohim Yahweh for the gifts he bestows upon mankind.  In the parable of the talents, only those who used them were rewarded.  We want everyone to put their talents to good use.

   One of the many things you can do is obtain some good timeline maps.  I have included one below for you to look at.  I will include more if you are interested?  In charting eras and Israel's location through each era; you must reference from various points in time.  Let's start with the origin of Israel shall we? 

Anthony; one of the major individual advancements in Bible study, is doing research.  Learning how to correctly research the Bible is invaluable to any diligent Bible student.  Where did Israel originate?  What happened to Israel?  When were they taken into Assyrian captivity?  Did they ever return?  Are the twelve tribes of Israel divided ten and two?  Where are the ten tribes of Israel today?  Where are the two tribes of Judah and Benjamin today?  What tribes are in the Holy Land today?  We will continue with this study when I receive permission to place more timeline maps on this web site to refer to.  I have the maps already, just need permission to use them on this web site.  The above map is only a sample and it was free.  The others I paid for!  Sincerely, Hawke

Sabbath's Day Journey?

Dear Mr. Hawke,
I have another question. Some of my friends have read the scriptures
in Exodus 16:29 and decided this meant for us to stay in our homes on
the Sabbath. It does seem to be saying this except there are plenty
of examples of Yahshua out on the Sabbath with his disciples. Also,
in Acts it seems like there were gatherings on the Sabbath. Do you
know of any scriptures that state we should stay in our own
dwellings, homes, on the Sabbath?

Sabbath's Day Journey?

Hawke Answers:

Jo Ann: First; let us turn to the passage in question, Exodus 16:29

And it happened on the seventh day, some of the people went out to gather, and did not find any.
And Yahweh said to Moses, Until when do you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?
Behold! Because Yahweh has given the sabbath to you, therefore He is giving to you two days of bread on the sixth day. Each one of you remain in his place. Do not let anyone go out from his place on the seventh day.
And the people rested on the seventh day.  And the house of Israel called its name, Manna. And it was like the seed of coriander, white; and its taste like cakes with honey.   Exodus 16:27-30

The short answer can be extrapolated from this passage.  The subject matter is gathering manna.  The Israelites were told to gather a double portion in preparation for the Sabbath verse 22.  However; some did not heed the commandment and went out to gather on the Sabbath Day.  This would be in violation of the no work on the Sabbath Day commandment.  Moses rebuke them for this violation and then tells them to remain in their place on the Sabbath.  This does not mean that you can't leave your dwelling on the Sabbath!  This is only referring to gathering manna on the Sabbath.  By reference and extension-no work on the Sabbath!  You can correlate this passage with the following passage in Numbers.

And while the sons of Israel were in the wilderness they found a man gathering sticks on the sabbath day.
And those who found him gathering sticks brought him to Moses and Aaron, and to all the congregation.
And they put him under guard; for it had not been declared what should be done to him.
And Yahweh said to Moses, Dying the man shall die; all the congregation shall stone him with stones outside the camp.
And all the congregation brought him outside the camp and stoned him with stones. And he died, as Yahweh commanded Moses.  Numbers 15:32-36

Here we see someone put to death for gathering on the Sabbath.  He should have remained in his place, in other words; he should not have left his dwelling to work/gather on the Sabbath! 

The real problem with all of this is the extrapolation of a "Sabbath Day's Journey" from this passage.  There is no mention of any exact measure you can travel on the Sabbath day in this passage or any other I could find. I'll have more to say on the Sabbath's Day Journey.

WHICH FEAST DAYS?

Adrian Writes:

Hello,

I saw your website and I see that you have some good information on it. The reason that I checked to the your site is that I recently got interested in the "Messianic movement" and I see that they put a lot of effort in following Biblical scriptures, but I still have a lot of questions and research to do on it, as I don't want to be confused by any men's teachings.

Some of my question to you is:


Should we (I mean the Body of Yahshua), follow the Jewish Holidays or the traditional Christians holidays? (i.e., Chr--tmas, Easter)

Hawke Answers:

Thank you for visiting the web site and for the response question.  The Bible delineates the pattern for true worship to follow.  The feast days are no exception.  Beginning with the weekly Sabbath and; continuing with the set times (moedim) in Leviticus 23 and Deuteronomy 16, the feasts of Yahweh are to be observed. The days that Chr--tians keep traditionally, are of pagan origin.  The Jewish Holidays are predetermined by a set calendar.  The only acceptable way to keep the Feast Days of Yahweh correctly is by observing His calendar in the heavens.  The New Moon of the first month (Abib) begins the pattern for the entire year.  (See Deuteronomy 16:1.)  You begin to count to the first of the feasts days, Passover and Feast of Unleavened Bread.  This count continues with Shavuoth (50-Pentecost) and on to Trumpets, Atonement, and Feast of Tabernacles.  Read Leviticus 23 and Deuteronomy 16 followed by a study on these passages.  You will see these days kept in both the Old Testament and the New Testament.

Milk and Meat?